Coming back to address Lynn's original theme. Yes, the differences between different forms of English are fascinating, and the even more fascinating question is why? How come, in the contexts you note, did we in the UK drop 'the' while you over in the US retained it? How come the US retained 'gotten' while we ditched it? And so on. Was there a conscious decision somewhere along the line to be different, either by the Brits or the Americans? Or was it due to a particular linguistic dogma espoused on one or other sides of the Atlantic? Or was it just a natural evolution from the mix of peoples in both lands?

Anyone got any answers?

Yvonne